I agree with that, except the wandering part. Can't think of any reason spin would preserve velocity.Wandering yes, slowing more, no.
Spence
I agree with that, except the wandering part. Can't think of any reason spin would preserve velocity.Wandering yes, slowing more, no.
In the posting I was referring to (off another blackpowder forum that I don't normally visit) the claim was that the spin imparted to the ball shot from a rifle accounted for it retaining speed better than the ball shot from a smoothbore. I don't know if that is true or not, I was adding grist to the mill for the OP's question.
No one is questioning that the balls and guns under discussion have enough "whompability" to take down any animal on this continent. The OP wanted to know if a ball shot from a smoothbore will be slower than one from a rifle, both propelled by black powder (which works differently than smokeless powder). This is a hypothetical question ; comparing rifle "A" to smoothbore "B" requires an elimination or at least a minimization of all variables - bore size, ball diameter and weight, patching thickness, lube, wadding material etc. etc. etc. (Two identical modern firearms from the same maker can record different velocities from identical ammunition - and that's fired at the same time/location. Imagine the difficulty of a true comparison between different types of muzzleloaders.)
OP stated that he did chronograph the load once and got an average velocity of 1488 fps! THAT puts the lie to those who argued with him and claimed "750".
The question raised is an interesting one. Hopefully, someone on the Forum has enough understanding of the Physics involved to give us a "scientific" answer.
Richard/Grumpa
In the posting I was referring to (off another blackpowder forum that I don't normally visit) the claim was that the spin imparted to the ball shot from a rifle accounted for it retaining speed better than the ball shot from a smoothbore. I don't know if that is true or not, I was adding grist to the mill for the OP's question.
No one is questioning that the balls and guns under discussion have enough "whompability" to take down any animal on this continent. The OP wanted to know if a ball shot from a smoothbore will be slower than one from a rifle, both propelled by black powder (which works differently than smokeless powder). This is a hypothetical question ; comparing rifle "A" to smoothbore "B" requires an elimination or at least a minimization of all variables - bore size, ball diameter and weight, patching thickness, lube, wadding material etc. etc. etc. (Two identical modern firearms from the same maker can record different velocities from identical ammunition - and that's fired at the same time/location. Imagine the difficulty of a true comparison between different types of muzzleloaders.)
OP stated that he did chronograph the load once and got an average velocity of 1488 fps! THAT puts the lie to those who argued with him and claimed "750".
The question raised is an interesting one. Hopefully, someone on the Forum has enough understanding of the Physics involved to give us a "scientific" answer.
Richard/Grumpa
A couple of useful links re the works of Benjamin Robins:For more information based data I recommend reading the following:
It seems to me there are two questions here, and that they are being conflated but need to be kept separate.In the posting I was referring to (off another blackpowder forum that I don't normally visit) the claim was that the spin imparted to the ball shot from a rifle accounted for it retaining speed better than the ball shot from a smoothbore.
Concur. My apologies, I thought both questions were still in play. Guess I haven't kept up. In any case, my point was that while both are interesting, question #1 has a more significant practical impact on the terminal ballistics.It seems to me there are two questions here, and that they are being conflated but need to be kept separate.
#1 Will the same charge of powder, ball size, barrel length, etc., in smoothbore and rifle result in the same muzzle velocity?
#2 Give the same muzzle velocities of identical balls, will a non-spinning ball from a smoothbore and a spinning ball from a rifle lose their velocity at the same rate?
These are two very different questions. I thought we were discussing question #2, the effect of spin.
Spence
I observed an interesting, to me, thing when I was into paint ball. As you know, paint ball guns are smoothbores, and shoot a round projectile. I have a long barrel on mine. (yeah, still have it) I was shooting it off a porch, on a house built on the side of a hill, so you could shoot them out into space, and really observer the flight. The paint balls would fly very straight for a distance, (around fifty yards?) and then very distinctly make sharp turns to the right of left, or up or down. Maybe not up. Since seeing that, I believe that lead ball out of smooth bore does much the same, probably not to that extent. ??? Just an observation. It would certainly explain 3" groups at 50 yards, and 3-foot groups at 100. ?? Sorry if this has been discussed profusely before. And sorry to be off topic.Well, diverge and wander are sort of the same, wander is to diverge and then diverge back. I understood you to mean that. It was what I was disagreeing with. I'm not convinced roundballs fired from smoothbores turn left at 50 yards as the dogma would have it.
Spence
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